Re: [isabelle] Conjunctions commutative in function arguments?

I'm afraid that this proof doesn't follow logically, since in general P ==> Q does not imply f P ==> f Q.

Larry Paulson

On 2 Mar 2006, at 11:03, Robert Lamar wrote:

Would you expect something like this to work?

    lemma conj_commute: "P & Q ==> Q & P" by auto

    lemma "f ( P & Q ) ==> f ( Q & P )"
    proof -
      assume "f( P & Q )"
      from this conj_commute [of P Q]
      have "f( Q & P )" by simp

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